I'll also agree with D but I'd really like to know if the seller actually is likely to prevail in this situation. Obviously, it is stipulated for this question, but what if it wasn't?
Peter Barnes
2019-07-06 03:02:47 +0000 UTC
This is a tough one! But I'm going for (D). Equitable conversion occurs at the signing of the K, and Buyer should have gotten insurance then because Seller is not required to carry insurance once the contract is signed. It might have been /nice/ of seller to tell buyer to get some insurance, but not a requirement. Property is the worst lol